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10crow (May 3, 2008 at 2:59 am)
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shaybshay (May 2, 2008 at 8:05 am)
I don't know why some people don't understand the term "The Nuts." Which simply means the best hand possible. In the case here the commentator, Norman Chad, misspoke on fourth street saying "Sammy's got the nuts" when the nuts at that point would be AAAQQ. This is not about particular situations. You either have the nuts, the absolute best hand possible, or you don't. If Sammy flipped his hand over and said "I have the nuts" he would be wrong, he has the second nut or second best hand possible.
neabuze (May 1, 2008 at 6:34 pm)
Sammy Farha is a bad bad man :D
stousers (May 1, 2008 at 6:34 am)
Yeah Dummy so in that situation he had the nuts making hte comentators statement true and non arguable. They dont talk about the theoretical Nuts of every hand you talk about the current situation of the hand. jamesmilos your such an idiot
connyfeih (April 29, 2008 at 1:17 pm)
lol dude, you dont get it,
helpmycatsonfire (April 29, 2008 at 1:11 am)
I consider A-T or AA to both be the nuts here, as both hands cannot be beaten save by miracle single-out draws.
With A-T the opponent has slightly more outs (they can win with pocket jacks, queens or kings if they get runner-runner quads), but either way a royal flush or straight flush draw is possible if the opponent has certain cards.
In fact, it is utterly impossible in poker to have an unbeatable hand after the flop with anything less than a straight flush.
jamesmilos (April 29, 2008 at 12:04 am)
your an idiot. I'm saying the nuts is if sammy farha had AA INSTEAD of AT...INSTEAD....INSTEAD
Tiller88 (April 28, 2008 at 4:16 pm)
Yes, you can argue that by your definition of "nuts". The nuts are not always "the best possible hand", but the hand that nobody can beat. Samy Farha holds the hand of which he knows that it is always best (on the flop). So he has the nuts. The commentator says on the turn that Samy has the nuts. That is not correct. The nuts would be AQ or AA. |